A 22years old man with type 1 diabetes patient comes to the Emergency room complaining of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. He has very poor appetite so he reduced his insulin intake because of flu symptoms.

Which of the following is the correct response?.

A .Diabetic Ketoacidosis.

B.Insulin dependent..



Correct answer is A.

Rationale: Diabetic Ketoacidosis is due to insufficient insulin.Signs and symptoms are : polyuria,polydipsia,nausea,vomiting, dry mucous membrane, weight loss,abdominal pain,hypotension,shock,coma.


Published by edochie99

A Registered Nurse with over twenty years of hospital experience, an author with Masters Degree in Nursing,also Bachelor Degree in Nursing,graduated in 1996 from USC,University of Southern California.MSN in 2009 University of Phoenix.

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