A 22years old man with type 1 diabetes patient comes to the Emergency room complaining of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. He has very poor appetite so he reduced his insulin intake because of flu symptoms.
Which of the following is the correct response?.
A .Diabetic Ketoacidosis.
B.Insulin dependent..
C.Hypokalemia.
D.Hypovolemia.
Correct answer is A.
Rationale: Diabetic Ketoacidosis is due to insufficient insulin.Signs and symptoms are : polyuria,polydipsia,nausea,vomiting, dry mucous membrane, weight loss,abdominal pain,hypotension,shock,coma.
Nurses You Move Me 
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